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In reply to your email: no, it was a speculation that a certain editor is a sock of a certain other editor, neither of them being you. ] (]) 17:12, 16 January 2011 (UTC) | In reply to your email: no, it was a speculation that a certain editor is a sock of a certain other editor, neither of them being you. ] (]) 17:12, 16 January 2011 (UTC) | ||
== Hermon == | |||
I'm poking you here to avoid clogging the tubes at the article's talk page. Please re-read the discussion there. The rationale is explained pretty clear. We need to stop disruptive editing by partisan parties and to concentrate on content instead of style. Stay well. ] (]) 16:57, 17 January 2011 (UTC) |
Revision as of 16:57, 17 January 2011
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Vandalism?
There may be vandalism going on here - do you think I should revert it? As best I know, not the US, not even Israel denies it's occupied. Templar98 (talk) 15:58, 10 January 2011 (UTC)
Under big brother's nose
Read your arguments with a certain party, over a certain issue recently and I think you have made their bias very clear. However that is as much as I dare say (that is a reflection of freedom of speech on Misplaced Pages) Prunesqualer (talk) 00:23, 12 January 2011 (UTC)
FYI
You might have something to say about this. NickCT (talk) 17:40, 14 January 2011 (UTC)
Quotation
For pita, I gave a citation to the current online edition of the OED. I believe it would be a copyright violation to include the text of the OED's etymology in extenso, but here is part of it for your reference. I don't believe this belongs in the article space.
- Etymology: Partly < modern Hebrew pittāh ( < Balkan Judaeo-Spanish pita slightly leavened flat bread), partly < the etymon of the latter, modern Greek πήττα, πίτα, πίττα bread, cake, pie, pitta (a1108 in medieval Greek as πίτα), partly < Serbian and Croatian pita (1685), and partly perhaps also < other languages of the Balkans (compare Albanian pite, Bulgarian pita); further etymology uncertain and disputed.
- The relationship of the forms in the different European languages is unclear. Various ancient Greek etymons have been suggested, but the word appears to be of fairly recent appearance in Greek (as is suggested by the variable spelling); also, a plausible transmission from ancient Greek into the various other modern languages is difficult to establish. Modern Hebrew pittāh is written as if descended from an Aramaic form (compare Old Western Aramaic pittəṯā, Eastern Aramaic pittā, related to Palestinian colloquial Arabic fatte crumb, piece of bread) but there is no continuity between them. The Arabic word for this type of bread is kimāj ( < Persian kumāj). Turkish pide (1890) is a loanword, probably < Greek.
- An ultimate origin in Germanic has been suggested ...
Does that help? What in particular did you find problematic? --Macrakis (talk) 21:06, 14 January 2011 (UTC)
The text above is the Etymology section of the 'pita' article in the current online OED up to the ellipsis (...). It seems pretty clear to me. English got the word from Hebrew and also from various Balkan languages. Beyond that, things are less well understood. --Macrakis (talk) 21:23, 14 January 2011 (UTC)
reply to email
In reply to your email: no, it was a speculation that a certain editor is a sock of a certain other editor, neither of them being you. Looie496 (talk) 17:12, 16 January 2011 (UTC)
Hermon
I'm poking you here to avoid clogging the tubes at the article's talk page. Please re-read the discussion there. The rationale is explained pretty clear. We need to stop disruptive editing by partisan parties and to concentrate on content instead of style. Stay well. AgadaUrbanit (talk) 16:57, 17 January 2011 (UTC)