This is an old revision of this page, as edited by Toby Bartels (talk | contribs) at 22:55, 13 September 2002 (The capitalisation of the title is wrong; it is a proper noun.). The present address (URL) is a permanent link to this revision, which may differ significantly from the current revision.
Revision as of 22:55, 13 September 2002 by Toby Bartels (talk | contribs) (The capitalisation of the title is wrong; it is a proper noun.)(diff) ← Previous revision | Latest revision (diff) | Newer revision → (diff)I think a visual of the triangles involved in this proof would be very helpful- even if they are really crude like mine.
Just an interesting side note, it is believed that Pythagoras stumbled onto this proof as he was climbing the stairs to his office and he looked down at the courtyard and in the mosaic tiles, he saw the pattern of three circles and a right angle triangle.
Poser: (3,4,5) is a Pythagorean triplet since 3^2 + 4^2 = 5^2. Which positive integers are not part of a Pythagorean triplet?
perhaps add a mention of the fact that in the UK it's known as "Pythagoras' Theorem" ?
(6,8,10) is a Pythagorean triple, but is not listed in the table. All the triples listed have no common divisor (unlike (6,8,10)). They are called primitive Pythagorean triples.
man that last paragraph was just awesome.
Why is Pythagorean theorem correct and Pythagorean Theorem incorrect? This is not an article about the general concept of a Pythagorean theorem (any theorem proved by Pythagoras?) but about a specific theorem, the Pythagorean Theorem. "Pythagorean Theorem" is a proper noun, and I'm always seen it capitalised as such in mathematics texts. The same, of course, goes for Poincaré's Conjecture, Zorn's Lemma, and all the rest. Where would it be best to bring this up for discussion in general? — Toby 22:55 Sep 13, 2002 (UTC)